I realise that western Poland had a large amount of ethnic Germans (although I'm not sure if they were being murdered...). The reason why Germany is blamed is already in my reply, the Germans knew that the British and the French had a mutual assistance treaty with Poland, and yet they still took a gamble thinking it would be a repeat of the Munich Agreement, and the reason the declaration of war happened in the first place was because of the invasion. If they didn't invade, a world war wouldn't have happened. If the Allies accepted any peace with Germany, they would've been going back on their agreement with Poland (which wouldn't have been an anomaly, after all it had just happened with Czechoslovakia but enough was enough). Furthermore, the peace offers were sent after Hitler had taken France, and that was when Churchill was in power. The lead-up to the war could very much be attributed to Britain, and more specifically Neville Chamberlain and his policy of appeasement (Allowing the Germans to re-militarise the Rhineland, allowing the Anschluss with Austria, and allowing the Germans to take over the Sudetenland, and then Bohemia, the first two of which were forbidden in the Treaty of Versailles (which itself is a big reason for World War 2, but that's neither here nor there)), but it is undeniable that the Germans escalated tensions in Europe to a boiling point, and the fact the invasion of Poland was the start of WW2. The viewpoint that 'Jewish leaders' started WW1 and WW2 is a pure conspiracy... unless you can provide evidence for your claim?