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solve a math problem [18+]
NiKo | 
Russia communism_no_thanks 
Given an increasing sequence of prime numbers a1,..., ap forming an arithmetic progression, let p be a prime number and let a1 > p. Prove that the difference d = a2 - a1 = a3 - a2 =...= ap - a(p-1) is divisible by p.
2020-07-06 19:21
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3
2020-07-06 19:22
You need to prove and not guess the number.
2020-07-06 19:25
#2
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Russia Drapery
47
2020-07-06 19:22
You need to prove and not guess the number.
2020-07-06 19:29
#58
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Belgium lil_vodka
AK-47
2020-07-07 20:07
p/a1 = ø proven
2020-07-06 19:30
that's the scandinavian o, wtf
2020-07-06 19:31
*danish and norwegian swedes are weird
2020-07-06 19:31
agreed
2020-07-06 19:32
+1
2020-07-06 19:38
+1
2020-07-06 20:27
Read the problem statement.
2020-07-06 19:37
Sorry I think I first learn this next year at math class Haven't learned this stuff yet :(
2020-07-06 19:35
By the way nice "o" in ur language.
2020-07-06 19:42
Thank you friendly russian
2020-07-06 19:43
1 = 0 because s1mple has 0 majors
2020-07-06 19:32
lol
2020-07-06 19:39
#39
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Brunei ALEISTER!
+1
2020-07-06 20:09
5
2020-07-06 19:34
You need to prove and not guess the number.
2020-07-06 19:35
Or?
2020-07-06 19:36
#27
2020-07-06 19:56
Or I...
2020-07-06 19:56
69
2020-07-06 19:36
8
2020-07-06 19:36
#21
 | 
Chile gentleeH
easy by induction
2020-07-06 19:42
#24
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Cyprus Sotiris
its just an induction method problem
2020-07-06 19:43
Something very fun wow
2020-07-06 19:44
youtube.com/watch?v=dmdgOov-4q8 man i found the answer
2020-07-06 19:45
lol
2020-07-06 19:46
#60
 | 
Belgium lil_vodka
XAXAXAXAXA yobenaya fisika
2020-07-07 20:09
31
2020-07-06 19:47
maths in 2k20 😂
2020-07-06 19:46
abracadabra
2020-07-06 19:50
1
2020-07-06 19:53
Seems like you just wrote a bunch of nonsense
2020-07-06 20:08
lol, no.
2020-07-06 20:09
#40
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Russia Drapery
+1
2020-07-06 20:09
Ok, I will write the solution in 2 days.
2020-07-06 20:25
I think he just worded the problem statement very poorly
2020-07-06 20:26
whats the point of this
2020-07-06 20:27
#49
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United States ClappyBats
I'm not sure how it would help, as the proof part evades me. But if you let p = 2, then have a1 = 5, then 7-5 = 2, 11-7 = 4, 13-11 = 2, 17-13 = 4, 23-17 = 6. etc. I think the proof could lay in the fact that every prime number ap would be odd after 2, and thus every difference in ap - a(p-1) would have an even difference, which is hence divisible by 2, a prime number.
2020-07-06 20:28
It is divisible by not only 2 but all primes less than a1
2020-07-12 16:05
exercise left for the reader
2020-07-06 20:36
ptsd
2020-07-07 18:07
a_p = a_1 + (p - 1)*d a_p - a_1 = (p - 1)*d­ Eq. 1 a_p - a_1 + d = (p - 1)*d + d = p*d Now we calculate modulo p == means congurent a_p - a_1 + d == 0 (mod p) a_p - a_1 == -d (mod p) But from eq 1 we can see that a_p - a_1 = (p - 1)*d so we insert it here (p - 1)*d == -d(mod p) from here we can see that p*d == 0 (mod p) which radically means that 0 = 0. Fuck let me try again
2020-07-06 20:44
Bump
2020-07-07 18:03
lol who cares, pure math is shit. You don't need to solve this dude, move on.
2020-07-07 18:10
For someone like you you're probably right, you won't need any of this. But for someone smarter it's still useful.
2020-07-07 18:18
Yeah i don't like pure maths only applied math and physics so i'm not smart
2020-07-07 20:04
#55
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Finland kkd69
42
2020-07-07 18:14
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